Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why can't flat-Earthers create an agency like NASA to explore Earth to prove it is flat? What's preventing them from doing so?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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